I recently purchased a used car instead of re-leasing again.
The total cost of the car was about $10,000. I could have bought it in cash. I decided to finance it instead, as I figure having $10K more in my bank now will be more useful if I need to purchase a house or apartment in the near future for the 20% down payment. The loan is at 3.19% interest rate for 60 months (5 years). I couldn't get a better rate because my credit utilization has been too high (been using 0% APR credit cards). There was a 3 year option but the interest would drop to just 3.00%. Not a big difference, considering I plan to keep the car for hopefully 10 years.
On the loan documents I signed, the bank lists the collateral, which is the vehicle. I am guessing in the event the loan is delinquent, they will attempt to recover their cost by possessing the car.
The value of the collateral is a fair bit higher than the loan. It is listed at around $13,000.
Does this mean the bank thinks that is how much the asset would be worth, if they sold it? Or was that just to indicate the loan-to-value ratio, and hence a less risky loan?
The total cost of the car was about $10,000. I could have bought it in cash. I decided to finance it instead, as I figure having $10K more in my bank now will be more useful if I need to purchase a house or apartment in the near future for the 20% down payment. The loan is at 3.19% interest rate for 60 months (5 years). I couldn't get a better rate because my credit utilization has been too high (been using 0% APR credit cards). There was a 3 year option but the interest would drop to just 3.00%. Not a big difference, considering I plan to keep the car for hopefully 10 years.
On the loan documents I signed, the bank lists the collateral, which is the vehicle. I am guessing in the event the loan is delinquent, they will attempt to recover their cost by possessing the car.
The value of the collateral is a fair bit higher than the loan. It is listed at around $13,000.
Does this mean the bank thinks that is how much the asset would be worth, if they sold it? Or was that just to indicate the loan-to-value ratio, and hence a less risky loan?
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