Does anyone understand why the terms of a refi would be written as follows?
Interest rate is 4.75% locked, 30 year
Origination fee is 1% (shown as a charge for the loan)
Discount fee is -1% (then shown as a credit for the above charge)
Closing costs will run slightly over 2K. The line by line shows that the origination fee and discount of -1% completely cancel each other so it would be 0pts, 0 origination. I just don't understand why it would be written this way, unless it is a way for someone to get paid?
Quite frankly, this refi would serve us well. Recoupe of closing costs in just 9-10 mos. I guess I just want to know (if any one has any ideas) on why it was written this way.
Interest rate is 4.75% locked, 30 year
Origination fee is 1% (shown as a charge for the loan)
Discount fee is -1% (then shown as a credit for the above charge)
Closing costs will run slightly over 2K. The line by line shows that the origination fee and discount of -1% completely cancel each other so it would be 0pts, 0 origination. I just don't understand why it would be written this way, unless it is a way for someone to get paid?
Quite frankly, this refi would serve us well. Recoupe of closing costs in just 9-10 mos. I guess I just want to know (if any one has any ideas) on why it was written this way.

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